Bava Kamma 84

Chapter 84

א ונימא רבי עקיבא לנפשיה והלא עצמו אין משתלם אלא מגופו הביאהו לבית דין וישלם לך
1 But why should R. Akiba not argue against himself,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Exactly as he argued against R. Eliezer, supra p. 236. ');"><sup>1</sup></span>
ב אמר רב שמואל בר רב יצחק כשקדם בעליו ושחטו מהו דתימא לישתלם מיניה קמ"ל הואיל ובר קטלא הוא אע"ג דשחטיה לא לישתלם מיניה
2 Since any actual liability in the case of the ox itself [being a <i>Tam</i>] is not paid except out of its body [why should not the owner say to the plaintiff] 'Bring it to the Court of Law and be reimbursed out of it'? — R. Samuel son of R. Isaac thereupon said: [This creates no difficulty; the case is one] where the owner of the ox slaughtered it before [the passing of the sentence].<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In which case the flesh could legitimately be used as food; cf. infra p. 255. ');"><sup>2</sup></span>
ג אי הכי לרבי אליעזר נמי כשקדם ושחטו
3 You might suggest in that case that payment should be made out of the flesh; we are therefore told that since the ox [as such] had been liable [to be stoned] to death, no payment could be made out of it even where it was slaughtered [before the passing of the sentence]. But if so, why [did not R. Akiba think of this reply to the objection he made] to R. Eliezer<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Supra p. 236. ');"><sup>3</sup></span>
ד ה"נ וסבר דלמא אית ליה טעמא אחרינא דעדיף מהאי ונימא ליה
4 also, viz. that the owner of the ox slaughters it beforehand? — He could indeed have done this, but he thought that R. Eliezer<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Supra p. 236. ');"><sup>3</sup></span>
ה ורבי אליעזר נמי לישני ליה שקדם ושחטו אמר לך התם הוא דנתכוון להרוג את הבהמה והרג את האדם דשור לאו בר קטלא הוא כלל דס"ד אמינא ניחייב אצטריך קרא למעוטי אבל הכא דמעיקרא בר קטלא הוה לא צריך קרא אע"ג דשחטיה
5 also probably had another explanation better than this which he would tell him. But why did R. Eliezer [himself] not answer him that he referred to a case where the owner slaughtered the ox beforehand? — He could answer: It was only there where the ox aimed at killing a beast but [by accident] killed a man, in which case it is not liable [to be stoned] to death, and you might therefore have thought there was a liability [for <i>kofer</i>], that there was a need for Scripture to indicate that there is [in fact] no liability. But here where the ox had originally been liable [to be stoned] to death, no Scriptural indication should be needed [to exempt from liability] even where the ox has meanwhile been slaughtered.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' This was the reason why R. Eliezer answered as he did, and not as suggested here that the ox was slaughtered before the sentence had been passed on it. ');"><sup>4</sup></span>
ו ולר"ע נמי ודאי הכי הוה
6 But should not the same argument be employed also regarding the exposition of R. Akiba?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And if so, the original problem will recur: Why should R. Akiba not argue against himself as he did against R. Eliezer, supra p. 236. ');"><sup>5</sup></span>
ז אלא אמר רב אסי האי מילתא מפי דגברא רבה שמיע לי ומנו רבי יוסי ברבי חנינא סלקא דעתך אמינא הואיל ואמר ר"ע אף תם שחבל באדם משלם במותר נזק שלם משתלם נמי [דמי עבד] מעלייה כתב רחמנא בעל השור נקי
7 — R. Assi therefore said: The explanation of this matter was delivered to me from the mouth of a great man, to wit, R. Jose b. Hanina [who said]: You might be inclined to think that since R. Akiba said, 'Even in the case of <i>Tam</i> injuring Man the payment of the difference must be in full',<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Supra p. 179. ');"><sup>6</sup></span>
ח אמר ליה רבי זירא לרב אסי והא תבריה ר"ע לגזיזיה דתניא ר"ע אומר יכול ישלם מן העלייה ת"ל (שמות כא, לא) כמשפט הזה יעשה לו מגופו משלם ואינו משלם מן העלייה
8 the compensation for killing a slave should also be paid out of the best [of the general estate]. Divine Law therefore states, The owner of the ox shall be quit, [implying that this is not the case]. Said R. Zera to R. Assi: Did R. Akiba himself not qualify this liability? For it was taught:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Cf. supra p. 180. ');"><sup>7</sup></span>
ט אלא אמר רבא אצטריך ס"ד אמינא הואיל ומחמירני בעבד יותר מבן חורין שבן חורין יפה סלע נותן סלע שלשים נותן שלשים ועבד יפה סלע נותן שלשים משתלם נמי דמי עבד מן העלייה כתב רחמנא (שמות כא, כח) בעל השור נקי
9 R. Akiba says, As it might be thought that this full payment<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In the case of Tam injuring a human being. ');"><sup>8</sup></span>
י תניא כותיה דרבא בעל השור נקי ר"ע אומר נקי מדמי עבד
10 has to be made out of the best [of the general estate], it is therefore further stated, According to this judgment shall it be done unto him,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ex. XXI, 31. ');"><sup>9</sup></span>
יא והלא דין הוא הואיל וחייב בעבד וחייב בבן חורין מה כשחייב בבן חורין חלקת בו בין תם למועד אף כשחייב בעבד נחלק בו בין תם למועד
11 [to emphasize that] payment is to be made out of its body, but no payment is to be made out of any other source whatsoever? — Raba therefore [gave a different explanation] saying: The implication is still essential, for otherwise you might have thought that since<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In the case of Mu'ad. ');"><sup>10</sup></span>
יב ועוד ק"ו ומה בן חורין שנותן כל שוויו חלקת בו בין תם למועד עבד שאינו נותן אלא שלשים אינו דין שנחלוק בו בין תם למועד
12 I have to be more strict in the case of [killing] a slave than in the case of a freeman — for in the case of a freeman worth one <i>sela'</i> the payment<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e. kofer. ');"><sup>11</sup></span>
יג לא מחמירני בעבד יותר מבן חורין שבן חורין יפה סלע נותן סלע שלשים נותן שלשים ועבד יפה סלע נותן שלשים יכול יהא חייב ת"ל בעל השור נקי נקי מדמי עבד:
13 will be one <i>sela'</i>, and of one worth thirty the payment will be thirty, whereas in the case of a slave even where he was worth one <i>sela'</i> the payment will have to be thirty<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In the case of Mu'ad. ');"><sup>10</sup></span>
יד תנו רבנן (שמות כא, כט) והמית איש או אשה אמר ר"ע וכי מה בא זה ללמדנו אם לחייב על האשה כאיש הרי כבר נאמר (שמות כא, כח) כי יגח שור את איש או את אשה
14 — there should be compensation for [the killing of] a slave<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In the case of Tam. ');"><sup>12</sup></span>
טו אלא להקיש אשה לאיש מה איש נזקיו ליורשיו אף אשה נזקיה ליורשיה
15 even out of the best of the estate,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' There can thus no more arise the question, 'Since any actual liability in the case of the ox itself (being Tam) is not paid except out of its body, (why should not the owner say to the plaintiff) " bring="" it="" to="" the="" court="" and="" be="" reimbursed="" out="" of="" it"?'="" cf.="" supra="" p.="" 236.="" ');"=""><sup>13</sup></span>
טז וסבר ר"ע לא ירית לה בעל והתניא (במדבר כז, יא) וירש אותה מכאן שהבעל יורש את אשתו דברי ר"ע
16 the Divine Law therefore states, 'The owner of the ox should be quit' [implying that this is not the case]. It was taught in accordance with [the explanation given by] Raba: 'The owner of the ox should be quit' [implies], according to the statement of R. Akiba, quit from compensation for [the killing of] a slave. But is this not strictly logical?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Wherefore then the special inference from the verse? ');"><sup>14</sup></span>
יז אמר ריש לקיש לא אמר אלא בכופר הואיל ואין משתלם אלא לאחר מיתה והוה ליה ראוי ואין הבעל נוטל בראוי כבמוחזק
17 For since there is liability [to pay compensation] for [the killing of] a slave and there is liability [to pay compensation] for [the killing of] a freeman;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e. kofer. ');"><sup>11</sup></span>
יח מאי טעמא אמר קרא (שמות כא, כט) והמית איש או אשה השור יסקל וגם בעליו יומת אם כופר יושת עליו
18 just as where there is liability [to pay compensation] for [the killing of] a freeman a distinction has been made by you between <i>Tam</i> and <i>Mu'ad</i>,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That in the case of Mu'ad, kofer is paid, but not in the case of Tam. ');"><sup>15</sup></span>
יט ובנזקין לא אמר ר"ע
19 why then in the case where compensation has to be paid for [the killing of] a slave should you similarly not make a distinction between <i>Tam</i> and <i>Mu'ad</i>? This conclusion could moreover be arrived at by the <i>a fortiori</i> argument: If in the case of [killing] a freeman where the compensation<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' I.e. kofer. ');"><sup>11</sup></span>
כ והתניא הכה את האשה ויצאו ילדיה נותן נזק וצער לאשה ודמי ולדות לבעל אין הבעל נותן ליורשיו אין האשה נותנת ליורשיה היתה שפחה ונשתחררה
20 is for the whole of his value a distinction has been made by you between <i>Tam</i> and <i>Mu'ad</i>,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That in the case of Mu'ad, kofer is paid, but not in the case of Tam. ');"><sup>15</sup></span> then in the case of [killing] a slave where the compensation amounts only to thirty [<i>sela'</i>] should it not stand to reason that a distinction must be made by us between <i>Tam</i> and <i>Mu'ad</i>? — Not so, because (on the other hand] I am<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In the case of Mu'ad. ');"><sup>16</sup></span> more strict in the case of [killing] a slave than in that of [killing] a freeman. For in the case of a freeman, where he was worth one <i>sela'</i> the compensation will be one <i>sela'</i>,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. p. 241, n. 3. ');"><sup>17</sup></span> [where he was worth] thirty the compensation will be thirty, whereas in the case of a slave even where he was worth one <i>sela'</i> the compensation has to be thirty.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' In the case of Mu'ad. ');"><sup>16</sup></span> This might have inclined us to think that [even in the case of <i>Tam</i>] there should be liability. It was therefore [further stated], The owner of the ox shall be quit, implying quit from compensation for [the killing of] a slave. Our Rabbis taught: [It is written,] <i>But it hath killed a man or a woman</i>.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ex. XXI, 29. ');"><sup>18</sup></span> R. Akiba says: What does this clause come to teach us? If that there is liability for the goring to death of a woman as of a man, has it not already been stated, <i>if an ox gore a man or a woman</i>?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Ibid. 28. ');"><sup>19</sup></span> It must therefore have intended to put the woman on the same footing as the man: just as in the case of a man the compensation<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. p. 241, n. 3. ');"><sup>17</sup></span> will go to his heirs, so also in the case of a woman the compensation will go to her heirs.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Not to her husband. ');"><sup>20</sup></span> Did R. Akiba thereby mean [to put forward the view] that the husband was not entitled to inherit her? But has it not been taught: <i>'And he shall inherit her</i>;<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Num. XXVII, 11. ');"><sup>21</sup></span> this shows that the husband is entitled to inherit his wife. This is the view of R. Akiba'?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' B.B. 111b. ');"><sup>22</sup></span> — Resh Lakish therefore said: R. Akiba<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' [So MS.M., v. Rashi.] ');"><sup>23</sup></span> stated this<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' That the husband does not inherit the compensation due to the woman. ');"><sup>24</sup></span> only with reference to <i>kofer</i> which, since it has not to be paid save after [the] death [of the victim], is regarded as property in anticipation,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' As at the last moment of her life the liability for kofer was neither a chose in possession nor even a chose in action ');"><sup>25</sup></span> and a husband is not entitled to inherit property in anticipation as he does property in actual possession.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Cf. B. B. 113a and 125b. ');"><sup>26</sup></span> But why [should <i>kofer</i> not be paid except after death]?<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Why not say that as soon as the blow was ascertained to have been fatal the payment of kofer should be enforced? ');"><sup>27</sup></span> — Scripture says: <i>But it hath killed a man or a woman; the ox shall be stoned, and its owner also shall be put to death. If there be laid on him a ransom</i>.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Implying that the payment of money as kofer is, like the killing of the ox, not enforced before the victim has actually died. ');"><sup>28</sup></span> But did R. Akiba not hold that damages [for injury also are not inherited by the husband]? Has it not been taught:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Infra p. 280. ');"><sup>29</sup></span> If one hurt a woman so that her embryo departed from her, compensation for Depreciation and for Pain should be given to the woman, compensation for the value of the embryo to the husband.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' V. Ex. XXI, 22. ');"><sup>30</sup></span> If the husband is not [alive], his due should be given to his heirs, and if the woman is not [alive at the time of payment] her due should be given to her heirs. [Hence] if the woman was a slave that had been emancipated<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' And the husband was of the same category. ');"><sup>31</sup></span>